1) What is one of the key functions of clinical laboratory services? a) Administering vaccines b) Diagnosing diseases c) Prescribing medication d) Providing physical therapy 2) Qualitative tests provide results in what format? a) Yes/No or Positive/Negative b) Numerical values c) Graphical trends d) Probabilities 3) Which is an example of a quantitative test? a) Pregnancy test b) Blood glucose level test c) COVID-19 antigen test d) Throat swab 4) What type of laboratory is typically located in a physician's office? a) Reference Laboratory b) Independent Laboratory c) Hospital-Based Laboratory d) Physician’s Office Laboratory (POL) 5) What does CLIA compliance ensure in laboratory settings? a) Cost-effectiveness b) Adherence to legal and quality standards c) Fast processing times d) Use of the latest technology 6) Which specimen is analyzed in Hematology? a) Urine b) Tissue c) Blood d) Sputum 7) What is the purpose of chain-of-custody protocols? a) Monitoring glucose levels b) Diagnosing bacterial infections c) Testing for substance abuse d) Conducting urinalysis 8) What hormone is detected in pregnancy tests? a) Insulin b) Estrogen c) Progesterone d) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) 9) What is the purpose of culture and sensitivity testing? a) Measuring glucose levels b) Diagnosing cancer c) Identifying antibiotic effectiveness d) Screening for anemia 10) Which phase of laboratory workflow involves specimen collection? a) Preanalytical b) Analytical c) Postanalytical d) Operational 11) What is one responsibility during the postanalytical phase? a) Running tests b) Documenting results c) Calibrating equipment d) Collecting the specimen 12) What does quality assurance (QA) focus on? a) Technical training b) Procedure review and compliance c) Equipment maintenance d) Blood collection 13) What is a waived test under CLIA? a) Urinalysis requiring a centrifuge b) Glucose meter test c) Complete blood count d) Molecular diagnostic test 14) Which test monitors anticoagulant therapy? a) Hemoglobin test b) ESR c) PT/INR d) Cholesterol test 15) What organization develops guidelines for laboratory practices? a) FDA b) CLSI c) WHO d) CDC 16) What is one advantage of a Physician’s Office Laboratory (POL)? a) Faster result turnaround b) Reduced costs c) Minimal staff training d) Higher complexity tests 17) Which type of fluid is tested in special chemistry or microbiology? a) Saliva b) Body fluids like CSF c) Stool d) Sweat 18) What do fecal specimens primarily test for? a) Cholesterol b) Hemoglobin levels c) Ova and parasites d) Blood glucose 19) Which test is NOT an example of a common lab test? a) Hemoglobin/Hematocrit (H/H) b) Cholesterol Testing c) Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) d) Vision acuity 20) What is the role of selective media in culture testing? a) Growing all bacteria b) Encouraging specific organism growth c) Measuring chemical properties d) Identifying immune responses 21) Which test detects inflammation? a) ESR b) PT/INR c) Glucose level d) Cholesterol test 22) What must be verified before collecting a specimen? a) Equipment calibration b) Patient identification c) Specimen color d) Laboratory policy 23) What should an MA do after receiving test results? a) Ignore abnormal results b) Conduct retesting immediately c) Perform a new test d) Input results into the EHR accurately 24) Which test is NOT categorized as highly complex? a) Molecular diagnostics b) CBC c) Advanced genetic testing d) Wet mounts 25) Which factor is crucial for maintaining quality control (QC)? a) High test volume b) Rapid results c) Reliable and repeatable results d) Cost efficiency 26) What specimen is used for PAP/Thin Prep screening? a) Tissue or cells from the cervix b) Urine c) Stool d) Blood

Chapter 41: The Clinical Laboratory Practice Test

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