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1) Which of the following significant figure was the first to observe live microorganisms underneath a simple microscope, and described them as “animicules” or “wee little beasties”: a) Hippocrates b) Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek c) Robert Hooke d) Schwann 2) Which of the following significant figures identified that a single isolated microbe can cause a disease? a) Hooke b) Pasteur c) Koch d) Lister 3) All of the following fall under the domain Eukarya, except a) Fungi b) Algae c) Protists d) Viruses 4) Bacteria have ______ cell walls, while Archaea have _______ cell walls a) Peptidoglycan; Pseudomurein b) Pseudomurein; Peptidoglycan c) Thick; Thin d) Peptidoglycan; Peptidoglycan 5) These protists are plant-like and contain cellulose cell walls a) Bacteria b) Algae c) Fungi d) Protozoa 6) Which is not a component of a Gram+ cell wall? a) Teichoic Acids b) Thick Peptidoglycan c) Lipopolysaccharides d) NAG subunits 7) How does an acidic stain work on a cell and affect its appearance? a) Background is stained instead of the cell  b) Enters and stains/colors cell c) Cells remain colorless d) None of the above 8) What is the function of the part labeled #4: a) Used to focus specimens with 4x and 10x lenses b) Controls the amount of light on specimens c) Adjusts the intensity of light d) Used to focus specimens with a 100x lens 9) How would Gram+ and Gram- cells appear after treating the slide with decolorizer? a) They would be stained purple b) There would be no change c) Both Gram+ and Gram- would lose their color d) Gram- would be colorless 10) Which of the following is not part of the endomembrane system? a) Endoplasmic Reticulum b) Golgi Apparatus c) Lysosome d) Peroxisome 11) This eukaryotic organelle acts as a packaging, sorting, and processing center. a) Endoplasmic Reticulum b) Lysosome c) Golgi Apparatus d) Plasma Membrane 12) Why are Gram+, acid-fast bacteria considered to have an atypical cell wall? a) They have LPS b) Their wall has 3 layers c) The cell wall has mycolic acid layer covering it d) They have teichoic acid 13) When there is a tuft of flagella in one corner, this is known as a ________ arrangement a) Monotrichous b) Lophotrichous c) Amphitrichous d) Peritrichous 14) Slime layers describe a glycocalyx coating that is neatly organized and firmly attached to the cell a) True b) False 15) These organisms are anaerobes that prefer oxygen; in a thioglycollate tube, there is heavy growth at the top and growth throughout the tube a) Facultative Anaerobes b) Obligate Anaerobes c) Microaerophiles d) Aerotolerant Anaerobes 16) This phase of the growth curve is where cells are actively dividing by binary fission a) Lag Phase b) Stationary Phase c) Log Phase d) Death Phase 17) Which BSL level deals with harmless organisms like E. coli and Bacillus subtilis, that don’t generally cause infection? a) BSL 1 b) BSL 2 c) BSL 3 d) BSL 4 18) Which precaution is not needed when working in a BSL3 lab? a) Vaccinations b) Full body protective suit c) Autoclave d) Directional airflow 19) Which organelle fits the description: Role in lipid biosynthesis and detoxification of compounds a) Rough ER b) Smooth ER c) Lysosome d) Nucleolus e) Cytoskeleton f) Mitochondria 20) Which organelle fits the description: Contain vesicles with hydrolytic enzymes a) Rough ER b) Smooth ER c) Lysosome d) Nucleolus e) Cytoskeleton f) Mitochondria 21) Which organelle fits the description: Skeletal component of cell a) Rough ER b) Smooth ER c) Lysosome d) Nucleolus e) Cytoskeleton f) Mitochondria 22) Which organelle fits the description: Powerhouse of the cell a) Rough ER b) Smooth ER c) Lysosome d) Nucleolus e) Cytoskeleton f) Mitochondria 23) Which organelle fits the description: Dark, dense area within nucleus; site of rRNA synthesis a) Rough ER b) Smooth ER c) Lysosome d) Nucleolus e) Cytoskeleton f) Mitochondria 24) Which organelle fits the description: Protein Synthesis a) Rough ER b) Smooth ER c) Lysosome d) Nucleolus e) Cytoskeleton f) Mitochondria 25) How does HTST differ from UHT pasteurization? a) In HTST, milk is heated at 72º C for 15 seconds b) In UHT, pasteurization, milk is heated at 72º C for 15 seconds c) In HTST, milk is heated at 138º C for 2 or more seconds 26) Which of the following is part of the endomembrane system a) Peroxisome b) Cytoskeleton c) Golgi Apparatus d) Centrioles 27) _______ is the cleansing of fomites to remove enough microbes safe enough for public health a) Sanitization b) Degerming c) Sterilization d) Disinfection 28) Which statement accurately describes sterilization? a) Use at high enough temperatures to kill pathogens that can cause food poisoning b) Complete removal/killing of vegetative cells, endospores, and viruses c) Inactivating most microbes on the surface of a fomite d) Removing most microbes from the skin’s surface 29) HEPA filters are used to filter heat sensitive liquids a) True b) False 30) Which of the following are the standard conditions for an autoclave? a) 100º C, 1 psi, 60 minutes b) 121º C, 1 psi, 60 minutes c) 121º C, 15 psi, 15 minutes d) 212º C, 15 psi, 10 minutes 31) For appropriate food storage in refrigerators, the temperature should be set to no higher than which of the following? a) 5ºC b) 7ºC c) 9ºC d) 11ºC 32) What kind of drug would you use for a polymicrobial infection a) Narrow Spectrum b) Broad Spectrum c) Penicillin d) None of the Above 33) Which drug attacks folic acid synthesis? a) Rifampin b) Imidazoles c) Sulfonamides d) Polymyxin B 34) Which drug does not attack the 50s subunits of ribosomes? a) Tetracyclines b) Chloramphenicol c) Macrolides d) Lincosamides 35) Which is not a B-Lactam antibiotic? a) Penicillin b) Glycopeptides c) Cephalosporins d) All of the following are B-Lactam antibiotics 36) Quinolones attack what? a) RNA synthesis b) DNA synthesis c) Protein Synthesis d) Folic Acid Synthesis 37) Match the statement with the correct term: Targets plasma membrane of bacterial cells a) First Generation Cephalosporins b) Polymyxin B c) Penicillin d) Fifth Generation Cephalosporins e) Rifampin f) Tetracyclines 38) Match the statement with the correct term: Narrow spectrum, acts against Gram+ bacteria a) First Generation Cephalosporins b) Polymyxin B c) Penicillin d) Fifth Generation Cephalosporins e) Rifampin f) Tetracyclines 39) Match the statement with the correct term: Attacks 30s subunits of ribosomes a) First Generation Cephalosporins b) Polymyxin B c) Penicillin d) Fifth Generation Cephalosporins e) Rifampin f) Tetracyclines 40) Match the statement with the correct term: Used to treat tuberculosis a) First Generation Cephalosporins b) Polymyxin B c) Penicillin d) Fifth Generation Cephalosporins e) Rifampin f) Tetracyclines 41) Match the statement with the correct term: Attacks MRSA a) First Generation Cephalosporins b) Polymyxin B c) Penicillin d) Fifth Generation Cephalosporins e) Rifampin f) Tetracyclines 42) Match the statement with the correct term: Contains B-Lactam ring a) First Generation Cephalosporins b) Polymyxin B c) Penicillin d) Fifth Generation Cephalosporins e) Rifampin f) Tetracyclines 43) Which pathogen is not part of the ESKAPE pathogens a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa b) Eschericha coli c) Enterococcus faecium d) Acinetobacter baumannii 44) Which layer of the skin contains connective tissue and blood vessels a) 1 - Epidermis b) 2 - Dermis c) 3 - Hypodermis 45) What causes the formation of warts? a) Herpes Simplex Virus b) Rubella c) Varicella-Zoster Virus d) Papillomaviruses 46) HSV-1 causes genital herpes and can remain latent in the trigeminal nerve ganglia. a) True  b) False 47) This part of the eye has a jelly-like material and is usually sterile a) Sclera b) Vitreous Humor c) Conjunctiva d) Choroid 48) What causes inclusion conjunctivitis? a) Chlamydia trachomatis b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae c) Staphylococcus epidermidis d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 49) What is the leading cause of infectious blindness worldwide? a) Inclusion Conjunctivitis b) Trachoma c) Bacterial Keratitis d) Ophthalmia neonatorum 50) The brain is a part of the peripheral nervous system a) True b) False 51) Which meningeal membrane has a subarachnoid space that contains cerebrospinal fluid? a) Pia mater b) Dura mater c) Arachnoid mater 52) A patient comes in with a fever and a stiff neck. Their doctor does a spinal tap, and finds that the cerebrospinal fluid looks cloudy. What disease does this person most likely have? a) Bacterial Meningitis b) Tetanus c) Botulism d) Toxic Shock 53) Which is not a characteristic of Clostridium botulinum? a) Gram+ b) Endospore forming c) Obligate anaerobe d) Facultative anaerobe 54) 10% of people are healthy nasopharyngeal carriers for this disease a) Pneumococcal meningitis b) Meningococcal meningitis c) Haemophilus influenzae meningitis d) Bacterial meningitis 55) What is the major causative organism of acne? a) Propionibacterium acnes b) Corynebacterium xerosis c) Staphylococci d) Micrococci 56) Anaerobes that can tolerate oxygen are called a) Facultative anaerobes b) Aerotolerant anaerobes c) Microaerophiles d) Obligate aerobes 57) Bacteria that grow best in the human body are most likely ______ and ______ a) Alkaliphiles; Mesophiles b) Neutrophiles; Thermophiles c) Neutrophiles; Mesophiles d) Acidophiles; Mesophiles 58) _______ causes flaccid paralysis while _______ causes rigid paralysis a) C. botulinum; S. aureus b) C. tetani; C. botulinum c) C. botulinum; C. tetani d) N. meningitidis; C. tetani 59) Pneumococcal meningitis is … a) Caused by streptococcus pneumoniae b) Common in children c) In 10% of people d) Both A and B 60) Which eye disease can be transmitted to a neonate through the birth canal? a) Opthalmia neonatorum b) Blepharitis c) Keratitis d) Trachoma

BIOL20 MOCK FINAL EXAM 12.7.22

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