1) What is the most effective concentration of isopropyl alcohol? a) 75% b) 70% c) 100% d) 7% 2) Which of the following are the standard conditions for an autoclave? a) 100º C, 1 psi, 60 minutes b) 121º C, 1 psi, 60 minutes c) 121º C, 15 psi, 15 minutes d) 212º C, 15 psi, 10 minutes 3) For appropriate food storage in refrigerators, the temperature should be set to no higher than which of the following? a) 5ºC b) 7ºC c) 9ºC d) 11ºC 4) Which drug does not attack the 50s subunits of ribosomes? a) Tetracyclines b) Chloramphenicol c) Macrolides d) Lincosamides 5) Which is not a B-Lactam antibiotic? a) Penicillin b) Glycopeptides c) Cephalosporins d) All of the following are B-Lactam antibiotics 6) Match the statement with the correct term: Attacks 30s subunits of ribosomes a) First Generation Cephalosporins b) Polymyxin B c) Penicillin d) Fifth Generation Cephalosporins e) Rifampin f) Tetracyclines 7) How does HTST differ from UHT pasteurization? a) In HTST, milk is heated at 72º C for 15 seconds b) In UHT, pasteurization, milk is heated at 72º C for 15 seconds c) In HTST, milk is heated at 138º C for 2 or more seconds 8) Which organelle fits the description: Contain digestive enzymes that break down molecules and bacteria a) Mitochondria b) Smooth ER c) Lysosome d) Golgi Apparatus 9) This phase of the growth curve is where cells are actively dividing by binary fission. a) Lag Phase b) Stationary Phase c) Log Phase d) Death Phase 10) When there is a tuft of flagella in one corner, this is known as a ________ arrangement a) Monotrichous b) Lophotrichous c) Amphitrichous d) Peritrichous 11) Which is not a component of a Gram+ cell wall? a) Teichoic Acids b) Thick Peptidoglycan c) Lipopolysaccharides d) NAG subunits 12) All of the following fall under the domain Eukarya, except a) Fungi b) Algae c) Protists d) Viruses 13) Which of the following significant figure was the first to observe live microorganisms underneath a simple microscope, and described them as “animicules” or “wee little beasties” a) Hippocrates b) Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek c) Robert Hooke d) Schwann 14) Which of the following significant figures identified that a single isolated microbe can cause a disease? a) Hooke b) Pasteur c) Koch d) Lister 15) How would Gram+ and Gram- cells appear after treating the slide with decolorizer? a) They would be stained purple b) There would be no change c) Both Gram+ and Gram- would lose their color d) Gram- would be colorless 16) Which of the following is not part of the endomembrane system? a) Endoplasmic Reticulum b) Golgi Apparatus c) Lysosome d) Peroxisome 17) Which pathogen is not part of the ESKAPE pathogens a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa b) Eschericha coli c) Enterococcus faecium d) Acinetobacter baumannii 18) Match the statement with the correct term: Contains B-Lactam ring a) Rifampin b) Polymyxin B c) Penicillin d) Tetracyclines 19) What causes the formation of warts? a) Herpes Simplex Virus b) Rubella c) Varicella-Zoster Virus d) Papillomaviruses 20) HSV-1 causes genital herpes and can remain latent in the trigeminal nerve ganglia. a) True  b) False 21) What causes inclusion conjunctivitis? a) Chlamydia trachomatis b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae c) Staphylococcus epidermidis d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 22) What is the leading cause of infectious blindness worldwide? a) Inclusion Conjunctivitis b) Trachoma c) Bacterial Keratitis d) Ophthalmia neonatorum 23) Which of the following meninges is the outermost layer a) Pia mater b) Dura mater c) Arachnoid mater 24) Which of the following meninges is the innermost layer a) Pia mater b) Dura mater c) Arachnoid mater 25) Bacteria that grow best in the human body are most likely ______ and ______ a) Alkaliphiles; Mesophiles b) Neutrophiles; Thermophiles c) Neutrophiles; Mesophiles d) Acidophiles; Mesophiles 26) _______ causes flaccid paralysis while _______ causes rigid paralysis a) C. botulinum; S. aureus b) C. tetani; C. botulinum c) C. botulinum; C. tetani d) N. meningitidis; C. tetani 27) Which eye disease can be transmitted to a neonate through the birth canal? a) Ophthalmia neonatorum b) Blepharitis c) Keratitis d) Trachoma 28) Which of the following bacteria is not a common cause for bacterial meningitis? a) Neisseria meningitidis b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae c) Streptococcus pneumoniae d) Haemophilus influenzae 29) This disease is frequently caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis and Pseudomonas aeruginosa bacteria puts contact lens users at a higher risk that can quickly lead to blindness due to the bacteria’s ability to adhere well to the surface of the lenses. a) Bacterial keratitis  b) Conjunctivitis c) Ophthalmia neonatorum d) Inclusion conjunctivitis 30) Pneumococcal meningitis is … a) Caused by streptococcus pneumoniae b) Common in children c) 10% of people are healthy nasopharyngeal carriers d) Both A and B 31) Which types of cells secrete antibodies? a) Memory B Cells b) Plasma B Cells c) Helper T Cells d) Cytotoxic T Cells 32) Which area represents the antigen-binding sites? a) A and B b) A and C c) B and C d) C and D 33) A patient comes in with a fever and a stiff neck. Their doctor does a spinal tap, and finds that the cerebrospinal fluid looks cloudy. What disease does this person most likely have? a) Bacterial Meningitis b) Tetanus c) Botulism d) Toxic Shock 34) Which of the following organisms is most prevalent on college campuses. CDC recommends first-year college students living in residence halls to receive vaccination for it. a) Streptococcus pneumoniae b) Haemophilus influenzae c) Clostridium botulinum d) Neisseria meningitis 35) Prokaryotes fall under which domain? a) Archaea b) Eukarya c) Bacteria d) Protista 36) Which type of adaptive immunity describes the injection of antigens (e.g., vaccination/immunization) a) Naturally acquired active immunity b) Naturally acquired passive immunity c) Artificially acquired active immunity d) Artificially acquired passive immunity 37) Which type of adaptive immunity describes the injection of antibodies a) Naturally acquired active immunity b) Naturally acquired passive immunity c) Artificially acquired active immunity d) Artificially acquired passive immunity 38) What type of disease is Tetanus a) Noninfectious b) Communicable c) Noncommunicable d) Contagious 39) These organisms are anaerobes that prefer oxygen; in a thioglycollate tube, there is heavy growth at the top and growth throughout the tube. a) Facultative anaerobes  b) Obligate anaerobes c) Microaerophiles d) Aerotolerant anaerobes 40) Which is the best reason explaining the importance of the gram staining technique a) It allows for the differentiation of bacteria based on their ability to produce spores b) It helps identify the shape and arrangement of bacteria c) It assists in selecting appropriate antibiotics for bacterial infections d) It provides information about the metabolic capabilities of bacteria 41) Which staining process stains the background a) Gram Staining b) Negative Staining c) Endospore Staining d) Basic Staining 42) Which of the following are facultative anaerobes? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E 43) Which of the following is the causative agent of warts? a) Streptococcus b) Propionibacterium c) Papillomavirus d) Staphylococcus 44) Tetanus causes the rigid body posture known as a) Spasticity b) Opisthotonus c) Rigor mortis d) Contracture 45) Rictus sardonicus is related to which disease a) Tetanus b) Botulism c) Trachoma d) Bacterial meningitis 46) Which of the following is the correct form of binomial nomenclature? a) mycobacterium Tuberculosis  b) Mycobacterium Tuberculosis  c) Mycobacterium Tuberculosis d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis 47) What kind of cell contains this cell wall? (hint: includes toxic lipopolysaccharide layer) a) Gram+ Bacteria  b) Gram- Bacteria c) Archaea Cell d) Eukaryotic Cell 48) Which of the following is prevented by the Hib vaccine a) Haemophilus influenzae b) Pneumococcal meningitis c) Meningococcal meningitis d) Clostridium botulinum 49) Which microbe is responsible for causing strep throat? a) Streptococcus aureus b) Streptococcus pyogenes c) Staphylococcus epidermidis d) Streptococcus pneumoniae 50) Which of the following cells lacks a cell wall a) Animal Cells b) Archaea Cells c) Bacterial Cells d) Plant Cells 51) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in a) Detoxification of drugs and toxins b) Lipids/fats synthesis c) Calcium ion storage d) Protein synthesis 52) A patient arrives at the emergency department presenting scabs & pus-filled vesicles all around her body. The patient most likely has which of the following infections a) HHV3 b) HSV1 c) HSV2 53) Which requirement must be met before taking a narrow-spectrum antibiotic? a) A confirmed diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection b) Waiting for the lab results c) General symptoms suggestive of a bacterial infection d) Polymicrobial infections 54) Which of the following target structures describe the mode of action of cephalosporins a) Plasma Membrane b) 30s Ribosomes c) Cell Wall d) DNA Synthesis 55) Strawberry tongue, abrupt onset of a high fever, hypotension, a diffuse erythematous rash are all clinical manifestations of what a) Carbuncle b) Toxic Shock Syndrome c) Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome d) Propionibacterium 56) Which of the following proposed the Theory of Biogenesis after conducting his Swan Neck Flask experiment? a) Louis Pasteur  b) Francesco Redi c) Robert Koch d) Ignaz Semmelweis 57) List the steps of Gram Staining technique in order a) Safranin, Alcohol, Iodine, Crystal Violet b) Crystal Violet, Iodine, Alcohol, Safranin c) Crystal Violet, Alcohol, Iodine, Safranin d) Iodine, Crystal Violet, Alcohol, Safranin 58) A basic stain has a a) Positively charged chromophore b) Negatively charged chromophore c) Uncharged chromophore d) Both positively and negatively charged chromophore 59) This disease causes enterotoxins to inhibit the release of neurotransmitter, acetylcholine a) Tetanus b) Botulism c) Keratitis d) Blepharitis 60) Which of the following organelles are only found in prokaryotic cells a) Mitochondria b) Ribosomes c) Smooth ER d) Golgi Apparatus

BIOL20 Final PRACTICE

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