1) Which BSL level deals with indigenous organisms like Staphylococcus aureus that pose a moderate risk to workers? a) BSL 1 b) BSL 2 c) BSL 3 d) BSL 4 2) Which common protocol of microbial growth would you not use on fomites? a) Disinfection b) Commercial Sterilization c) Sanitization d) Antisepsis 3) Which of the following statements accurately describes sterilization? a) Complete removal/killing of vegetative cells, endospores, and viruses b) Inactivating most microbes on the surface of a fomite c) Use at high enough temperatures to kill pathogens that can cause food poisoning d) Removing most microbes from the skin’s surface 4) Using an autoclave to sterilize items is more effective than a dry-heat oven: T/F a) True b) False 5) How does HTST differ from UHT pasteurization? a) In UHT pasteurization, milk is heated at 72º Celsius for 15 seconds b) In HTST, milk is heated at 72ºCelsius for 15 Seconds c) In HTST, milk is heated at 138ºCelsius for 2 or more seconds. 6) What would be used to filter heat sensitive liquids? a) HEPA Filter b) Hyperbaric chamber c) Membrane filtration d) None of the above 7) Which chemical is commonly used as a surgical scrub? a) Alexidine b) Phenol c) Biguanides d) Both A and C 8) Betadine falls under what group of chemicals? a) Soaps b) Triclosan c) Phenol d) Halogens 9) _____ uses high pressure to kill bacteria and viruses food, while also maintaining food quality and shelf life. It can be used when canning foods a) Lyophilization b) Desiccation c) Pascalization d) Radiation 10) What additional safety precautions are in place in a BSL-4 Lab? a) Change clothing upon entering lab b) Full body protective suit c) Decontaminate materials when exiting d) All of the above 11) Who was the first person to show the antimicrobial properties of soil bacteria called actinomycetes? a) Selman Waksman b) Howard Florey c) Alexander Fleming d) Paul Ehrlich 12) Which route of drug administration is fastest and most efficient? a) Intramuscular b) Intravenous c) Oral d) Topical 13) Free Response: Describe the difference between broad and narrow spectrum antibiotics. In what 4 situations would you use broad spectrum antibiotics? a) discuss with group b) discuss with group PLEASE!! 14) Which antibiotic binds to the 30s subunit? a) Chloramphenicol b) Tetracyclines c) Macrolides d) Lincosamides 15) Methicillin falls under this group of antibiotics a) Fifth Generation Cephalosporins b) Trimethoprim c) B-Lactam antibiotics d) Rifamycin e) Glycopeptides 16) Active against MRSA a) Fifth Generation Cephalosporins b) Trimethoprim c) B-Lactam antibiotics d) Rifamycin e) Glycopeptides 17) Vancomycin falls under this group of antibiotics. a) Fifth Generation Cephalosporins b) Trimethoprim c) B-Lactam antibiotics d) Rifamycin e) Glycopeptides 18) Used to treat tuberculosis a) Fifth Generation Cephalosporins b) Trimethoprim c) B-Lactam antibiotics d) Rifamycin e) Glycopeptides 19) Inhibits folic acid synthesis a) Fifth Generation Cephalosporins b) Trimethoprim c) B-Lactam antibiotics d) Rifamycin e) Glycopeptides 20) _______ drugs prevent microbes from growing, while ______ drugs kill microbes directly a) Synergistic, Bactericidal b) Bactericidal, Bacteriostatic c) Bacteriostatic, Bactericidal d) Antagonistic, Bactericidal 21) Which pathogen is not a part of the ESKAPE pathogens? a) Eschericha coli b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa c) Enterococcus faecium d) Staphylococcus aureus 22) What is a possible target for a fungicide? a) Cholesterol b) Peptidoglycan c) Chitin d) Both A and C 23) Which fungicide disrupts ergosterol biosynthesis? a) Imidazoles b) Nikkomycin Z c) Rifamycin d) None of the above 24) This method of antibiotic resistance is when a bacteria will pump out an antibiotic, preventing it from entering the cell. a) Blocked Penetration b) Efflux Pump c) Target Modification d) Inactivation of Enzymes 25) Cellular respiration can be classified as what types of reactions? a) Catabolic and endergonic b) Anabolic and Endergonic c) Anabolic and Exergonic d) Catabolic and exergonic 26) Which is not true about enzymes? a) They can bind to any kind of substrate b) They increase the rate of reactions c) They decrease the activation energy of reactions d) They are biological catalysts 27) The inorganic, non-protein part of an enzyme is known as a: a) Coenzyme b) Cofactor c) Substrate d) Apoenzyme 28) Free Response: Explain the difference between competitive and noncompetitive inhibition in enzymes. a) discuss with group b) discuss with group PLEASE!! 29) 6 Carbon Glucose is broken down to two 3 carbon pyruvate molecules a) Electron Transport Chain b) Glycolysis c) Kreb’s Cycle 30) Pyruvate forms acetyl coA, and ATP and CO2 is produced. a) Electron Transport Chain b) Glycolysis c) Kreb’s Cycle 31) ATP Synthase is used to generate large amounts of ATP. a) Electron Transport Chain b) Glycolysis c) Kreb’s Cycle 32) Occurs in the cytoplasm of prokaryotes and eukaryotes a) Electron Transport Chain b) Glycolysis c) Kreb’s Cycle 33) During photosynthesis, this reaction occurs in the granum and uses light to produce ATP and oxygen. a) Dark Reaction b) Light dependent reaction c) Light independent reaction d) None of the above 34) If there is no oxygen after glycolysis, fermentation occurs: T/F a) True b) False 35) Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs during the Electron Transport Chain: T/F a) True b) False 36) During photosynthesis, water loses electrons, which means it is _____. Carbon dioxide is _______. a) Oxidized, reduced b) Reduced, oxidized c) Oxidized, oxidized d) Reduced, reduced 37) Plants would be considered according to their energy and carbon source? a) Autotroph b) Chemoautotroph c) Photoautotroph d) Organoautotroph 38) Which person/group of people demonstrated the Central Dogma of molecular biology (One gene=one protein)? a) Griffith b) Beadle and Tatum c) Hershey and Chase d) Avery, McLeod, McCarthy 39) Which is not a component of a DNA nucleotide? a) Deoxyribose b) Phosphate Group c) Nitrogenous Base d) Ribose 40) What are the pyrimidines in DNA? a) Cytosine and thymine b) Adenine and Guanine c) Cytosine and Uracil d) Cytosine and Guanine 41) In this step of protein synthesis, the DNA message encoded in RNA is read to make proteins. a) Replication b) Translation c) Transcription d) Encoding 42) In this step of protein synthesis, DNA language is converted to RNA language. a) Replication b) Translation c) Transcription d) Encoding 43) The function of mRNA is: a) Carry the message from DNA b) Carries amino acids to make proteins c) Forms ribosomal subunit complex d) Replicate DNA 44) What are the differences between DNA and RNA? a) RNA is single stranded, while DNA is double stranded b) RNA contains different phosphate groups c) RNA contains uracil instead of thymine d) Both A and C 45) If there was 34% adenine, how much guanine would there be? a) 16% b) 32% c) 34% d) 30% 46) According to Chargaff’s rules, how do bases pair in DNA? a) A-G, T-C b) A-T, G-C c) A-U, G-C d) A-G, U-C 47) What is the start codon that initiates protein synthesis? a) ATG b) UAA c) UAG d) AUG 48) Amoeba uses what structure for locomotion? a) Pseudopodia b) Cilia c) Flagella d) All of the above 49) Which protozoan structure is used for osmoregulation? a) Ectoplasm b) Endoplasm c) Contractile Vacuoles d) Cytosome 50) Which organism can cause keratitis? a) Entamoeba b) Acanthamoeba c) Naegleri fowleri d) Plasmodium 51) What are the products of schizogony? a) Merozoites b) Trophozoites c) Sporozoites d) Daughter Cells 52) Which organism causes Valley Fever? a) Giardia lamblia b) Naegleria fowleri c) Coccidioides immitis d) Candida albicans 53) What kind of hyphae is the letter “A”? a) Non septate b) Septate c) Pseudohyphae d) Coenocytic 54) What kind of algae is the source for agar, agarose, and carrageenan? a) Brown algae b) Golden algae c) Red algae d) Green algae 55) What statement describes the algal zone of lichens? a) Does photosynthesis b) Contains fungal hyphae c) Anchors lichen to rocks d) Has fungal components 56) _______ lichens are finger-like, rounded structures that have a branched appearance. a) Crustose b) Fruticose c) Foliose d) Branched 57) Which type of protozoan contains a pellicle and stigma, and can do photosynthesis? a) Paramecium b) Amoeba c) Euglena d) Fungi

BIOL20/20N Practice Exam 10/26

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