1) When using an electrosurgical unit (ESU), which action most effectively minimizes the risk of unintentional patient burns during surgery? a) Increasing the frequency of equipment checks during the procedure b) Placing the ESU's active electrode on a moist surface when not in use c) Verifying that the grounding pad is properly applied to an area with adequate muscle mass d) Setting the ESU to its highest power output to reduce procedure time 2) In terms of electrical safety in the OR, what is the primary concern when handling high-frequency surgical equipment, such as an ESU, near oxygen-rich environments? a) Equipment malfunction b) Ignition of a fire due to the presence of oxygen as an oxidizer c) Patient discomfort from electrical current d) Increased risk of infection from improper grounding 3) In a patient with a known history of malignant hyperthermia, what is the best anesthesia management strategy? a) Administering a volatile anesthetic and monitoring closely for signs of MH b) Avoiding all volatile anesthetics and depolarizing muscle relaxants c) Administering general anesthesia with minimal muscle relaxant usage d) Utilizing regional anesthesia only to prevent potential MH triggers 4) During anesthesia induction, what is the significance of preoxygenating the patient with 100% oxygen? a) To improve surgical visibility b) To ensure higher oxygen reserves in case of apnea during induction c) To reduce the risk of postoperative nausea d) To desensitize the airway prior to intubation 5) What specific steps must be taken during terminal cleaning of the OR to ensure compliance with infection prevention protocols? a) Cleaning only the surgical instruments and OR table b) Using a two-step process that includes cleaning and disinfecting all high-touch surfaces, including floors and equipment c) Spraying a disinfectant on surfaces and allowing it to air dry d) Cleaning all surfaces, including walls and ceilings, after every procedure 6) In an operating room that is frequently used for procedures involving patients with multidrug-resistant organisms (MDROs), what additional precautions should be taken during environmental cleaning? a) Limiting cleaning to only visible areas of contamination b) Using UV light disinfection in addition to standard cleaning protocols c) Doubling the time between cases to allow natural drying d) Minimizing the use of chemical disinfectants to avoid residue 7) During an acute malignant hyperthermia (MH) episode, which lab value is most critical to monitor in addition to core body temperature? a) Blood glucose levels b) Serum potassium levels c) Platelet count d) Hemoglobin concentration 8) In addition to dantrolene administration, what is a priority intervention during an MH crisis? a) Immediate initiation of rapid cooling measures such as ice packs and cooling blankets b) Administering a second dose of dantrolene before checking lab results c) Administering vasopressors to maintain blood pressure d) Intubating the patient to control ventilation 9) When managing a Code Blue in the OR with an open surgical field, what is the appropriate sequence of actions? a) Defibrillate the patient immediately, then pack the wound b) Begin chest compressions, then call for the crash cart c) Pack or cover the wound, then perform chest compressions  d) Administer epinephrine before performing chest compressions 10) Which of the following would be the most effective way to minimize interruptions in chest compressions during a Code Blue? a) Rotate the person performing compressions every 2 minutes b) Administer medications in between compression cycles c) Defibrillate only after 10 minutes of continuous compressions d) Perform compressions continuously without pausing for defibrillation 11) In the event of a surgical fire, what is the immediate priority action once the fire is detected? a) Extinguish the fire using a fire extinguisher b) Move the surgical team to a safe area c) Stop the flow of oxygen to prevent further combustion d) Shut down all electrical equipment 12) What is the main concern when performing surgery in an oxygen-rich environment, particularly during head and neck procedures? a) An increased risk of patient desaturation b) Increased risk of ignition from electrosurgical devices c) Difficulty in maintaining anesthesia levels d) Risk of tissue necrosis 13) In managing a patient with suspected LAST (Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity), which is the most appropriate initial step in treatment? a) Administering a high dose of a benzodiazepine b) Immediate administration of lipid emulsion therapy c) Monitoring the patient's heart rate every 5 minutes d) Administering corticosteroids to reduce inflammation 14) In the context of LAST, what is the primary role of lipid emulsion therapy? a) To break down the local anesthetic at the site of injection b) To bind and sequester lipophilic local anesthetics, preventing their toxic effects c) To stabilize the patient's blood pressure d) To enhance renal elimination of the anesthetic 15) What are the three elements of the fire triangle that must interact to start a fire in the operating room? a) Heat, fuel, oxidizer b) Fuel, oxygen, carbon dioxide c) Nitrous oxide, heat, electricity d) Air, liquid, spark 16) What is the correct sequence of actions when using the acronym PASS for operating a fire extinguisher in the OR? a) Pull the pin, Aim at the base, Squeeze the handle, Sweep across the fire b) Pull the pin, Alert others, Squeeze the handle, Secure the area c) Push the button, Aim at the source, Sweep the fire, Stop the flow of oxygen d) Prepare equipment, Activate the fire alarm, Sweep across the fire, Squeeze the discharge handle 17) Which of the following categories of hazards in the OR is associated with the release of harmful fumes and vapors from disinfecting agents and anesthetic gases? a) Biological hazards b) Physical hazards c) Chemical hazards d) Electrical hazards 18) Which key regulatory agency is responsible for establishing legally enforceable standards related to workplace safety, such as acceptable noise levels and radiation exposure in the OR? a) NFPA b) ANSI c) OSHA d) AAMI 19) What is the primary concern regarding surgical smoke generated during procedures? a) It can obstruct the surgical site view. b) It contains potentially harmful chemical components and viable cellular material. c) It leads to increased surgical time. d) It can cause allergic reactions in the surgical team. 20) Which of the following is a recommended practice to minimize exposure to surgical smoke? a) Using traditional surgical instruments exclusively. b) Employing smoke evacuation systems during all procedures that generate smoke. c) Ignoring smoke production if the surgical site is small. d) Waiting until the end of the procedure to clear smoke from the OR. 21) What is a critical safety measure when using electrosurgical units (ESUs) in the OR? a) Keeping the active electrode on the sterile field when not in use. b) Ensuring the grounding pad is properly placed and intact. c) Maximizing power settings to reduce procedure time. d) Allowing multiple team members to activate the ESU simultaneously. 22) Why should the electrosurgical pencil be placed in a holster when not in use? a) To prevent contamination of the surgical field. b) To avoid accidental activation and potential burns or fires. c) To reduce the overall weight of the surgical instruments. d) To ensure easy access for the surgeon. 23) What is the recommended humidity level to help reduce bacterial growth in the OR? a) Below 30% b) 40% to 50% c) 20% to 60% d) Above 70% 24) Which principle is essential for minimizing radiation exposure during surgical procedures? a) Increase the duration of exposure to maximize imaging quality. b) Stand as close as possible to the radiation source to monitor the procedure. c) Utilize lead aprons and shields to protect personnel. d) Use fluoroscopy only when absolutely necessary and for extended periods. 25) What is the most effective way to reduce radiation exposure for staff during fluoroscopic procedures? a) Increase the frequency of X-ray imaging. b) Use time, distance, and shielding principles. c) Stand behind the patient during imaging. d) Use higher radiation doses to complete procedures faster. 26) What is the primary risk associated with improper use of a pneumatic tourniquet during surgical procedures? a) Increased surgical visibility b) Tourniquet pain c) Nerve damage and ischemic injury d) Increased blood loss 27) Which of the following practices is essential for safe pneumatic tourniquet application? a) Keeping the tourniquet inflated for as long as possible. b) Regularly monitoring the pressure settings and the limb for signs of compromise. c) Using the same pressure for all patients regardless of limb size. d) Applying the tourniquet over clothing to avoid direct contact with the skin. 28) What is the primary reason for actively preventing unplanned perioperative hypothermia in patients? a) To improve surgical team comfort b) To decrease the need for additional warming interventions post-surgery c) To minimize the risk of postoperative complications such as infections and prolonged recovery d) To shorten the length of the surgical procedure 29) Which of the following is an effective strategy for maintaining normothermia during surgery? a) Keeping the operating room at the lowest temperature to prevent staff fatigue. b) Utilizing forced-air warming blankets preoperatively, intraoperatively, and postoperatively. c) Relying solely on surgical drapes for warmth. d) Providing ice chips to patients prior to surgery to regulate body temperat 30) During moderate sedation, what is the most critical monitoring parameter for patient safety? a) Blood pressure only b) Level of consciousness and respiratory status c) Heart rate only d) Skin temperature 31) What is the recommended course of action if a patient becomes unresponsive during moderate sedation? a) Increase the sedation dose immediately b) Check the patient’s vital signs and call for help if necessary c) Wait for the patient to regain consciousness naturally d) Assess the patient’s pain level first 32) What is the most immediate treatment for a patient experiencing a malignant hyperthermia crisis? a) Administering dantrolene/Ryanadex b) Cooling the patient with ice packs c) Administering oxygen d) Performing CPR 33) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic sign of malignant hyperthermia? a) Rapidly increasing body temperature b) Rigid muscles c) Hypotension d) Increased platelet count 34) In the event of a fire during a surgical procedure, which acronym is used to guide the immediate response actions? a) RACE b) PASS c) SAFER d) FARE 35) What is the most effective way to prevent fires in the OR during procedures involving flammable materials? a) Use only high-power lighting b) Maintain a humid environment c) Limit the use of electrical equipment d) Ensure flammable materials are kept away from ignition sources and adequately prepared before surgery 36) What is the primary responsibility of the perioperative nurse regarding patient rights? a) To perform the surgical procedure b) To advocate for the patient's needs and rights c) To administer anesthesia d) To prepare surgical instruments 37) During the nursing process, which phase involves identifying the patient's problems or needs? a) Assessment b) Diagnosis c) Planning d) Implementation 38) Which factor may complicate surgical treatment in patients with diabetes? a) Increased protein synthesis b) Dehydration and delayed wound healing c) Improved circulation d) Reduced infection risk 39) What does the ASA classification system assess? a) The type of surgery being performed b) The patient’s risk for anesthesia-related complications c) The effectiveness of postoperative pain management d) The surgeon's expertise 40) Which of the following is a role of the anesthesia care provider (ACP)? a) Manage the patient's physiologic responses during surgery b) Conduct the surgical procedure c) Prepare the surgical instruments d) Discharge the patient from the hospital 41) Which inhalation anesthetic agent is known for rapid onset and recovery? a) Halothane b) Isoflurane c) Sevoflurane d) Nitrous Oxide 42) What is the primary goal of infection control in the perioperative environment? a) To ensure proper instrument sterilization b) To prevent the transmission of infections c) To reduce surgery time d) To minimize the use of antibiotics 43) Which practice is essential for decreasing the risk of an SSI? a) Allowing multiple visitors in the operating room b) Using only pre-sterilized instruments c) Frequent changes of surgical drapes d) Ensuring hand hygiene before and after patient contact 44) What is the primary purpose of patient assessment in the perioperative setting? a) To perform the surgical procedure b) To identify patient needs and risks before surgery c) To determine the type of anesthesia to use d) To ensure the surgical instruments are sterilized 45) What is the primary focus of infection prevention in the perioperative environment? a) To minimize surgical costs b) To prevent the transmission of infections to patients and staff c) To speed up the surgical process d) To enhance patient satisfaction scores 46) What is the recommended action for patients at high risk for VTE? a) Immediate discharge from the hospital b) Use of compression stockings or SCDs c) Avoidance of mobility d) Reduced fluid intake 47) What is the primary goal when developing a care plan for a surgical patient? a) To prioritize cost over patient care b) To ensure the patient's comfort during surgery c) To address individual patient needs and outcomes d) To limit the number of healthcare providers involved 48) Why is it important to address patient priorities for older adults undergoing surgery? a) To minimize hospital stays b) To ensure that their values and preferences are respected in care decisions c) To speed up the surgical process d) To reduce the need for anesthesia 49) What intraoperative concern should be monitored closely in older patients? a) The color of the surgical drapes b) Their physiological responses to anesthesia and surgery c) The number of staff present in the OR d) Visitor access to the surgical area 50) What is a significant consideration when caring for obese patients in the perioperative setting? a) Increased risk of wound healing complications b) Reduced need for anesthesia c) Faster recovery times d) Lower risk of infection 51) What is a critical factor in the care of pediatric surgical patients? a) Ignoring developmental stages b) Addressing family concerns and preferences c) Using adult surgical protocols d) Minimizing communication with the patient 52) Which approach is important when preparing a child for surgery? a) Explaining the procedure in complex medical terms b) Using age-appropriate language and tools c) Avoiding any discussion about the surgery d) Focusing only on the technical aspects 53) Which of the following is an example of contact precautions? a) Wearing a mask and goggles b) Isolating patients in negative-pressure rooms c) Using gloves and gowns when interacting with the patient d) Frequent handwashing

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